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Why allow non-voters to donate to candidates?

What I don't get: why doesn't the amendment restrict legitimate donations to those that can vote in US elections?

I'm unsure about giving this much latitude to congress. I'd rather simply
move to 100% publicly funded elections-with the funds allocated by
citizens chosen by lottery from the voters. Those citizens would be
the only legitimate source of campaign funding-and candidates would have to
go through them.

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