The spam filter installed on this site is currently unavailable. Per site policy, we are unable to accept new submissions until that problem is resolved. Please try resubmitting the form in a couple of minutes.
Submitted by Randall Burns (not verified) on August 10, 2013 - 12:55am.
What I don't get: why doesn't the amendment restrict legitimate donations to those that can vote in US elections?
I'm unsure about giving this much latitude to congress. I'd rather simply
move to 100% publicly funded elections-with the funds allocated by
citizens chosen by lottery from the voters. Those citizens would be
the only legitimate source of campaign funding-and candidates would have to
go through them.
Why allow non-voters to donate to candidates?
What I don't get: why doesn't the amendment restrict legitimate donations to those that can vote in US elections?
I'm unsure about giving this much latitude to congress. I'd rather simply
move to 100% publicly funded elections-with the funds allocated by
citizens chosen by lottery from the voters. Those citizens would be
the only legitimate source of campaign funding-and candidates would have to
go through them.